Picture: More Summer Beach

Kinosaki/Takeno Beach 11.08.2007, originally uploaded by micpohling.

Oh, there is no Baywatch hot babe around. So disappointed! 😦
– Kinosaki/Takeno Beach 11.08.2007

OECD: Population vs GDP, Gini

Out from nowhere, I have a curious check to see if the population (in log10 form) will have any correlation with GDP and Gini in OECD countries.

a) Population vs GDP per capita [2001]

Rsquare=0.145 at p=0.0546.
If the so-called 2 outlier points (the “+” is iceland, “x” is US) are excluded from the graph, the Rsquare will increase to 0.301 (moderately strong) at p=0.0055, as shown below:

Note: The colour of each point represent the GDP bracket: red – GDP <$ 15,000, black- $15, 000 <GDP <$25,000, blue -GDP> $ 25,000

b) Population vs Gini [2000]

Rsquare=0.162 at p=0.051. However, let’s say if Luxembourg’s point is excluded, the rsquare will increase to 0.280 (p=0.009), as shown below:

So, is there any reason for why higher population has lower GDP per capita and higher Gini, i.e. income inequality? Or should there be any explanation at all? Could it be that if the population is small, it will be more managable? I mean it could not be that because a country’s GDP is low, therefore they want higher population? Any input?

Source:

1) Population: World Bank, 2000
2) GDP per capita: OECD
3) Gini 2000: OECD